6. Does the Bible use the word one in reference to God? Yes, many times. For example, see Zechariah 14:9; Malachi 2:10; Matthew 23:9; Mark 12:29, 32; John 8:41; 10:30; Romans 3:30; I Corinthians 8:4; Galatians 3:20; I Timothy 2:5; James 2:19.
No arguments here, the word ‘one’ is certainly used in reference to God which is completely consistent with Trinitarian belief in One God.
7. Can the mystery of the Godhead be understood? Yes. Romans 1:20; Colossians 2:9; I Timothy 3:16.
The question is not specific enough. Can the mystery of the Godhead (i.e. Deity) be understood in what way or to what degree?
If by this question they are asking if we can fully understand God then the obvious answer is no. To fully understand God would require us being at the very least equal to God if not greater than him—this is not the case. Yahweh spoke through the prophet Isaiah saying, 'For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.' (Is. 55:9) Zophar the Naamathite asked the questions, 'Can you fathom the mysteries of God? Can you probe the limits of the Almighty?' (Job 11:7, NIV)
If they are asking if God can be understood to a certain degree than the answer is yes—God can be understood to the degree that he has revealed himself in Scripture. It is from this that we know of his tri-personality. Remember, the saints are 'the ministers of Christ and stewards of the mysteries of God' (1Cor. 4:1).
8. Has the Christian only one Heavenly Father? Yes. Matthew 23:9.
No arguments here although it must be pointed out that the Father is one of three distinct persons of God. We know the Father in relation to the Son. Logically we would state the argument as follows:
One cannot be a Father without a child.
God is a Father (Mal. 2:10; Mat. 7:21).
Therefore God has a child (Pro. 30:4; Jo. 3:16).
But God is eternal and immutable (Ps. 90:2; Mal. 3:6).
Therefore God must have always been a Father (Jo. 17:5).
If God has always been a Father then God must have always had a Son.
Therefore the Son of God is eternal (Jo. 1:1; Mic. 5:2).
9. Then why did Jesus say to Philip, "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (John 14:9)? Because Jesus is the express image of God's person. Hebrews 1:3. The Greek word for person in this verse literally means "substance."
I would agree with this assessment but qualify it further. Yes, Jesus is the exact representation of the Father’s substance because they share one and the same substance. But Jesus’ comment to Phillip must be understood in light of John’s prologue and the incarnation. John shows a distinction between the Persons of the Father and the Son in John 1:1-3. This is evident in that the ‘Word was with God’ (Gk. pros ton theon). The preposition pros (with the accusative) denotes intimacy, fellowship, a living union, a motion towards, or a facing (cf. Mat. 13:56; 26:55; Mk. 6:3; 9:16; 1Cor. 16:6; 2Cor. 5:8)—meaning that the Word was ‘with’ God in an intimate and personal sense which is only possible if there are multiple persons.
10. Does the Bible say that there are two persons in the Godhead? No.
Again, the Bible doesn’t have to explicitly state that there are two persons in the Godhead for there to be two persons in the Godhead. Now obviously if the Bible teaches that there are three persons in the Godhead (which it does) then that necessarily includes two, but the question is phrased as to suppose binitarianism which the Bible does not teach.
No arguments here, the word ‘one’ is certainly used in reference to God which is completely consistent with Trinitarian belief in One God.
7. Can the mystery of the Godhead be understood? Yes. Romans 1:20; Colossians 2:9; I Timothy 3:16.
The question is not specific enough. Can the mystery of the Godhead (i.e. Deity) be understood in what way or to what degree?
If by this question they are asking if we can fully understand God then the obvious answer is no. To fully understand God would require us being at the very least equal to God if not greater than him—this is not the case. Yahweh spoke through the prophet Isaiah saying, 'For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.' (Is. 55:9) Zophar the Naamathite asked the questions, 'Can you fathom the mysteries of God? Can you probe the limits of the Almighty?' (Job 11:7, NIV)
If they are asking if God can be understood to a certain degree than the answer is yes—God can be understood to the degree that he has revealed himself in Scripture. It is from this that we know of his tri-personality. Remember, the saints are 'the ministers of Christ and stewards of the mysteries of God' (1Cor. 4:1).
8. Has the Christian only one Heavenly Father? Yes. Matthew 23:9.
No arguments here although it must be pointed out that the Father is one of three distinct persons of God. We know the Father in relation to the Son. Logically we would state the argument as follows:
One cannot be a Father without a child.
God is a Father (Mal. 2:10; Mat. 7:21).
Therefore God has a child (Pro. 30:4; Jo. 3:16).
But God is eternal and immutable (Ps. 90:2; Mal. 3:6).
Therefore God must have always been a Father (Jo. 17:5).
If God has always been a Father then God must have always had a Son.
Therefore the Son of God is eternal (Jo. 1:1; Mic. 5:2).
9. Then why did Jesus say to Philip, "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (John 14:9)? Because Jesus is the express image of God's person. Hebrews 1:3. The Greek word for person in this verse literally means "substance."
I would agree with this assessment but qualify it further. Yes, Jesus is the exact representation of the Father’s substance because they share one and the same substance. But Jesus’ comment to Phillip must be understood in light of John’s prologue and the incarnation. John shows a distinction between the Persons of the Father and the Son in John 1:1-3. This is evident in that the ‘Word was with God’ (Gk. pros ton theon). The preposition pros (with the accusative) denotes intimacy, fellowship, a living union, a motion towards, or a facing (cf. Mat. 13:56; 26:55; Mk. 6:3; 9:16; 1Cor. 16:6; 2Cor. 5:8)—meaning that the Word was ‘with’ God in an intimate and personal sense which is only possible if there are multiple persons.
10. Does the Bible say that there are two persons in the Godhead? No.
Again, the Bible doesn’t have to explicitly state that there are two persons in the Godhead for there to be two persons in the Godhead. Now obviously if the Bible teaches that there are three persons in the Godhead (which it does) then that necessarily includes two, but the question is phrased as to suppose binitarianism which the Bible does not teach.
