26. Does the Bible say that God, who is the Word, was made flesh? Yes John 1:1, 14.
The Greek text of John 1:1 tells us that the Word is distinct from the God he is with in the second clause (kai ho logos pros ton theon). The lack of the article before theos in the third clause (kai theos ēn ho logos) tells us that the Word is not the Father. See answer to question #2. John 1:14 draws as clear if not a clearer distinction in saying that the Word made flesh is the only begotten of the Father.
27. For what purpose was God manifested in the flesh? To save sinners. Hebrews 2:9, 14.
Trinitarians would agree.
28. Was Jesus God manifested in the flesh? Yes. I Timothy 3:16.
The textual evidence argues in favor of reading hos as opposed to theos in 1Timothy 3:16 but this variant is insignificant to what the passage is teaching. Trinitarians would once again agree that Jesus is God manifest in the flesh; we simply deny that he is the Father manifest in the flesh.
29. Could Jesus have been on earth and in heaven at the same time? Yes. John 3:13.
The question and answer given here are too simplistic—Jesus is the Son/Word incarnate—this is important in understanding the question. There was a time before the Son/Word was Jesus—in other words, prior to the incarnation Jesus was not Jesus. With this understanding of Jesus as the incarnate Word/Son we need to realize that ‘Jesus’ is not separate from his humanity or body. He was not ‘physically’ present in heaven at the moment of John 3:13.
Every believer must grapple with the questions concerning the times when Jesus lacks knowledge of certain events, or when he is only in one place at one time, or his being given power/authority—all of these things would seem to contradict God’s omniscience, omnipresence, and omnipotence. But they are answered in the incarnation and the hypostatic union. Too often the position is taken that ‘in Jesus’ humanity’ he did this or ‘in Jesus’ deity’ he did that but this misses the point of the incarnation and the hypostatic union. This tendency leads towards Nestorianism which was an ancient heresy that stated that Jesus was two persons.
The truth of the matter is that Jesus in his incarnation united two natures perfectly and completely in his one person, but willfully laid aside certain prerogatives of deity. This is not to say that he did not possess these prerogatives but rather that he willingly opted to cooperate with the limitations of humanity.
So in answer to the question, the answer is no. Jesus could only be physically present where he was, although his nature of deity which is shared equally with the Father and Holy Spirit is all-pervasive and fills the known universe and beyond. The oneness believer answers the question affirmatively because they create a division in the natures of deity and humanity which logically results in a Nestorian understanding of a divine and human Christ (although they would vehemently reject such a description of their belief). The result is Nestorian because they are forced to personalize the two natures of Jesus. They have the human nature on earth with the divine nature in heaven—the human nature prays to the divine nature—the human nature was sent by the divine nature—the human nature does the will of the divine nature, etc. (see David K. Bernard’s The Oneness of God, [Hazelwood, MO: Word Aflame, 2000], 176-78).
30. Does the Bible say that there is but one Lord? Yes. Isaiah 45:18; Ephesians 4:5.
Again, Trinitarians would agree with this statement although we would qualify it by saying that the one Lord exists as three eternally distinct persons.
The Greek text of John 1:1 tells us that the Word is distinct from the God he is with in the second clause (kai ho logos pros ton theon). The lack of the article before theos in the third clause (kai theos ēn ho logos) tells us that the Word is not the Father. See answer to question #2. John 1:14 draws as clear if not a clearer distinction in saying that the Word made flesh is the only begotten of the Father.
27. For what purpose was God manifested in the flesh? To save sinners. Hebrews 2:9, 14.
Trinitarians would agree.
28. Was Jesus God manifested in the flesh? Yes. I Timothy 3:16.
The textual evidence argues in favor of reading hos as opposed to theos in 1Timothy 3:16 but this variant is insignificant to what the passage is teaching. Trinitarians would once again agree that Jesus is God manifest in the flesh; we simply deny that he is the Father manifest in the flesh.
29. Could Jesus have been on earth and in heaven at the same time? Yes. John 3:13.
The question and answer given here are too simplistic—Jesus is the Son/Word incarnate—this is important in understanding the question. There was a time before the Son/Word was Jesus—in other words, prior to the incarnation Jesus was not Jesus. With this understanding of Jesus as the incarnate Word/Son we need to realize that ‘Jesus’ is not separate from his humanity or body. He was not ‘physically’ present in heaven at the moment of John 3:13.
Every believer must grapple with the questions concerning the times when Jesus lacks knowledge of certain events, or when he is only in one place at one time, or his being given power/authority—all of these things would seem to contradict God’s omniscience, omnipresence, and omnipotence. But they are answered in the incarnation and the hypostatic union. Too often the position is taken that ‘in Jesus’ humanity’ he did this or ‘in Jesus’ deity’ he did that but this misses the point of the incarnation and the hypostatic union. This tendency leads towards Nestorianism which was an ancient heresy that stated that Jesus was two persons.
The truth of the matter is that Jesus in his incarnation united two natures perfectly and completely in his one person, but willfully laid aside certain prerogatives of deity. This is not to say that he did not possess these prerogatives but rather that he willingly opted to cooperate with the limitations of humanity.
So in answer to the question, the answer is no. Jesus could only be physically present where he was, although his nature of deity which is shared equally with the Father and Holy Spirit is all-pervasive and fills the known universe and beyond. The oneness believer answers the question affirmatively because they create a division in the natures of deity and humanity which logically results in a Nestorian understanding of a divine and human Christ (although they would vehemently reject such a description of their belief). The result is Nestorian because they are forced to personalize the two natures of Jesus. They have the human nature on earth with the divine nature in heaven—the human nature prays to the divine nature—the human nature was sent by the divine nature—the human nature does the will of the divine nature, etc. (see David K. Bernard’s The Oneness of God, [Hazelwood, MO: Word Aflame, 2000], 176-78).
30. Does the Bible say that there is but one Lord? Yes. Isaiah 45:18; Ephesians 4:5.
Again, Trinitarians would agree with this statement although we would qualify it by saying that the one Lord exists as three eternally distinct persons.
